Valid Braindumps CAS-005 Sheet, Pass CAS-005 Guide

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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Governance, Risk, and Compliance: This section of the exam measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that cover the implementation of governance components based on organizational security requirements, including developing policies, procedures, and standards. Candidates will learn about managing security programs, including awareness training on phishing and social engineering.
Topic 2	Security Operations: This domain is designed for CompTIA security architects and covers analyzing data to support monitoring and response activities, as well as assessing vulnerabilities and recommending solutions to reduce attack surfaces. Candidates will apply threat-hunting techniques and utilize threat intelligence concepts to enhance operational security.
Topic 3	Security Architecture: This domain focuses on analyzing requirements to design resilient systems, including the configuration of firewalls and intrusion detection systems.
Topic 4	Security Engineering: This section measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that involve troubleshooting common issues related to identity and access management (IAM) components within an enterprise environment. Candidates will analyze requirements to enhance endpoint and server security while implementing hardware security technologies. This domain also emphasizes the importance of advanced cryptographic concepts in securing systems.

CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q170-Q175):

NEW QUESTION # 170
A systems administrator wants to introduce a newly released feature for an internal application. The administrate docs not want to test the feature in the production environment. Which of the following locations is the best place to test the new feature?

A. Testing environment
B. Staging environment
C. CI/CO pipeline
D. Development environment

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best location to test a newly released feature for an internal application, without affecting the production environment, is the staging environment. Here's a detailed explanation:
* Staging Environment: This environment closely mirrors the production environment in terms of hardware, software, configurations, and settings. It serves as a final testing ground before deploying changes to production. Testing in the staging environment ensures that the new feature will behave as expected in the actual production setup.
* Isolation from Production: The staging environment is isolated from production, which means any issues arising from the new feature will not impact the live users or the integrity of the production data.
This aligns with best practices in change management and risk mitigation.
* Realistic Testing: Since the staging environment replicates the production environment, it provides realistic testing conditions. This helps in identifying potential issues that might not be apparent in a development or testing environment, which often have different configurations and workloads.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Study Guide by Quentin Docter, Jon Buhagiar
* NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations

NEW QUESTION # 171
A company's security policy states that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released A recent llS zero-day vulnerability was discovered that affects all versions of the Windows Server OS:

Which of the following hosts should a security analyst patch first once a patch is available?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Answer: F

Explanation:
Based on the security policy that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released, the security analyst should patch Host 1 first. Here's why:
Public Availability: Host 1 is externally available, making it accessible from the internet. Publicly available servers are at higher risk of being targeted by attackers, especially when a zero-day vulnerability is known.
Exposure to Threats: Host 1 has IIS installed and is publicly accessible, increasing its exposure to potential exploitation. Patching this host first reduces the risk of a successful attack.
Prioritization of Critical Assets: According to best practices, assets that are exposed to higher risks should be prioritized for patching to mitigate potential threats promptly.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-40: Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Technologies CIS Controls: Control 3 - Continuous Vulnerability Management

NEW QUESTION # 172
A security analyst is reviewing the following log:

Which of the following possible events should the security analyst investigate further?

A. A malicious file that was run in this environment
B. A text file containing passwords that were leaked
C. A macro that was prevented from running
D. A PDF that exposed sensitive information improperly

Answer: B

Explanation:
Based on the log provided, the most concerning event that should be investigated further is the presence of a text file containing passwords that were leaked. Here's why:
Sensitive Information Exposure: A text file containing passwords represents a significant security risk, as it indicates that sensitive credentials have been exposed in plain text, potentially leading to unauthorized access.
Immediate Threat: Password leaks can lead to immediate exploitation by attackers, compromising user accounts and sensitive data. This requires urgent investi

NEW QUESTION # 173
An organization is developing on Al-enabled digital worker to help employees complete common tasks such as template development, editing, research, and scheduling. As part of the Al workload the organization wants to Implement guardrails within the platform. Which of the following should the company do to secure the Al environment?

A. Grant the system the ability to self-govern
B. Limn the platform's abilities to only non-sensitive functions
C. Require end-user acknowledgement of organizational policies.
D. Enhance the training model's effectiveness.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Limiting the platform's abilities to only non-sensitive functions helps to mitigate risks associated with AI operations. By ensuring that the AI-enabled digital worker is only allowed to perform tasks that do not involve sensitive or critical data, the organization reduces the potential impact of any security breaches or misuse.
Enhancing the training model's effectiveness (Option B) is important but does not directly address security guardrails. Granting the system the ability to self-govern (Option C) could increase risk as it may act beyond the organization's control. Requiring end-user acknowledgement of organizational policies (Option D) is a good practice but does not implement technical guardrails to secure the AI environment.

NEW QUESTION # 174
A financial technology firm works collaboratively with business partners in the industry to share threat intelligence within a central platform This collaboration gives partner organizations the ability to obtain and share data associated with emerging threats from a variety of adversaries Which of the following should the organization most likely leverage to facilitate this activity? (Select two).

A. ATTACK
B. CWPP
C. JTAG
D. STIX
E. YAKA
F. TAXII

Answer: D,F

Explanation:
D . STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression): STIX is a standardized language for representing threat information in a structured and machine-readable format. It facilitates the sharing of threat intelligence by ensuring that data is consistent and can be easily understood by all parties involved.
E . TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information): TAXII is a transport mechanism that enables the sharing of cyber threat information over a secure and trusted network. It works in conjunction with STIX to automate the exchange of threat intelligence among organizations.
Other options:
A . CWPP (Cloud Workload Protection Platform): This focuses on securing cloud workloads and is not directly related to threat intelligence sharing.
B . YARA: YARA is used for malware research and identifying patterns in files, but it is not a platform for sharing threat intelligence.
C . ATT&CK: This is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques but does not facilitate the sharing of threat intelligence data.
F . JTAG: JTAG is a standard for testing and debugging integrated circuits, not related to threat intelligence.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
"STIX and TAXII: The Backbone of Threat Intelligence Sharing" by MITRE
NIST SP 800-150, "Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing"

NEW QUESTION # 175
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Valid Braindumps CAS-005 Sheet, Pass CAS-005 Guide

Pass CAS-005 Guide | New CAS-005 Exam Notes

CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Syllabus Topics:

CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q170-Q175):

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